Tuesday, May 6, 2008
Descarters proof for the existence of God part II
Finally, since Descartes exists and is imperfect, has ideas, and knows of the attributes that define a perfect being, and no effect can have more reality than its’ cause, then a more perfect being must exist. A being that possesses all the attributes Descartes describes because a finite being cannot have an idea of infinity without their being something infinite, or an ignorant being who doubts and is imperfect having an idea of something omniscience and perfect, or a not all-powerful being having an idea of omnipotence without there being something that is all-powerful. And since Descartes has proven to have not created himself, which exists, because he would have given himself all the attributes previously mentioned and he does not contain all these attributes at the time of writing his Meditations, he must have been created by a more perfect being. He could have been created by a number of beings less perfect than perfection, but they must have been created by something more perfect, until the ultimate cause is reached, which is God. Descartes also argues that it cannot be supposed that several partial causes contributed to his creation because the inseparability of God is one of the most important attributes of His perfection. For no cause could have made him understand the interconnection of the perfections without making him recognize what they were.
To me, Descartes succeeds in his proof for the existence of something that possess the attributes that he suggests define a perfect being. And this thing is benevolent, inseparable, and contains all the attributes of a human, but not limited to. I believe this proof can be used to define the universe itself, and not a sentient being that exists separately from it. All of these attributes can define the universe that we exist within. It is the all-powerful, all-knowing, creator, and possess all the modes which make up thinking, but this may not be its’ essence, just a function. I do not think Descartes proves there is a God who has a plan and is concerned with the emotions of humans. I think benevolence exists within the universe, but the universe itself is indifferent to the pain of humans. I do not believe the universe can be a deceiver because it is the creator and for it to deceive it would have to create a being that is capable of being deceived and this would be a being that if deceived it would still be following the function given to it by its’ creator, and if the universe could will pain upon a human through deception, the human would understand it is the will of the infinite universe and would accept it as true until the universe changed again. Finally, I think Descartes makes a great argument for existence, but the ultimate decision of the existence of God as anyone knows Him is left to faith.
Descarters proof for the existence of God part I
Second, Descartes discovers that all ideas are either innate or adventitious. The innate ideas could not have been put there by himself, because if he could put innate ideas into himself then he could just as easily put other ideas into himself also which he proves that he did not because he doubts. So, the innate ideas must be put into his mind by a greater being. The adventitious ideas are external to him, and since he cannot create ideas from nothing, there must be some objective reality to these ideas. Even though some of these ideas seem absurd and completely without truth, they still are made up of an external reality. Like, the image of a mermaid, which is not known to exist, comes from the image of a woman and a fish. Therefore, something exists externally from him, and his thoughts are dependent on these objects being real.
Third, Descartes describes what he believes to be the attributes of God. He has ideas of eternity, infinity, omniscience, omnipotence, and creation; the defining attributes of God. And since all fraud and deception depend on there being a defect, God cannot be a deceiver because he is perfect by definition. Also, after Descartes’ proof for the existence of God, he says since he was created by God then he is somehow created in His image or likeness, and since he is a thinking thing, so, too, God must be a thinking thing.
Monday, April 28, 2008
So How is Metaphysics Possible?
For Kant, science is a body of synthetic a priori knowledge. Reason has not power to gain a priori knowledge of things that are outside our experience.ut
For Kant, all the metaphysics that has been conducted up till now has been completely useless.
He also challenges anyone who disagrees with his dismissal of all dogmatic metaphysics and he asks them to give one example of metaphysical synthetic a priori judgment that can and has been proven with certainty. It is impossible for this type of judgment to be based on conjecture, because something that is categorized as an "a priori truths" is itself necessary, and thus can't be based on common sense, since we derive our common sense from experience. Common sense can't advance metaphysics as a science.
Various Ideas of Reason and how they Mislead the Understanding
Metaphysics according to Kant is bounded. Why? Because reason poses questions for itself that it cannot answer. However, in these questionings, our reason bumps against boundaries that it can't got past. This includes the fact that we can't gain definite knowledge outside our experience. But this is useful to us. Although we can't go beyond them, we can infer that there exists something beyond them. We can also infer the connection that they must have with the world that we do perceive.
For Kant, we can't prove anything about the existence of God or His nature.
On Causal Connections
On the Possibility of Science
These experiences should be in line with universal and necessary laws . According to him, we do study the natural sciences and utilize universal and necessary laws. Thus there is some pattern of regularity in our experiences, but the question is how can this be?
For Kant, there is a difference between judgments of perception and judgments of experience. The former bring together many empirical intuitions and are only subjectively valid. The later apply concepts of understanding to judgments of perception, changing them into objective, universally valid laws. The difference between these two forms of judgments is that the former deal only with what we sense, while the latter deal with what we infer from our perceptions. Judgments of perceptions are not disputable because they are completely subjective. You can't tell me that the sky doesn't appear blue, red, white, or hot pink to me. Judgments of experience can be disputed because they are objective. Although you couldn't tell me what color the sky looks like to me, you can tell me what color it really is.
Is Mathematics Possible
Kant was lead, as a result, to three final remarks:
1. That we can have a priori certainty of geometry only because we have pure intuition of space. This certainty is due to the fact that we are only examining our own mental framework, and not things as they are in the world.
2. The says that he is not engaged in idealism. According to the view of idealists there are no real objects in the world. The only things that really exist are minds. Though he believes that we can not perceive things them self, Kant does not deny the existence of the object or any other reality in the world besides minds.
3. Appearance can be deceptive. We can misinterpret what we see and be deceived by such. If space and time exist as realities, then they can be misinterpreted by us, but since they are not realities, but just appearances, they are a priori certain.
Sunday, April 27, 2008
The Main Question
The very fact that this question can be postulated itself implies that the validity of metaphysics is doubtable. Some people, who according to Kant, give claims that they have studied the subject might say that it is real, but according to Kant, metaphysics needs a sturdier foundation that it has.
It is interesting to note that the very author/philosopher that led Kant to such conclusions was David Hume, who according to Kant, "threw no light on this species of knowledge, but he certainly struck a spark from which light might have been obtained, had it caught some inflammable substance and had its smoldering fire been carefully nursed and developed," ( Source http://www.mnstate.edu/gracyk/courses/phil%20306/kant_materials/prolegomena2.htm).
Hume concluded that if our knowledge of causes and their effects is not based on reason but rather on custom, all the metaphysical theories that attempt to explian how our reason leads us to such knowledge are worthless. Kant found that all metaphysics is based on a priori reasoning and is thus open to Humean attack. He shows how connections can be drawn a priori and how metaphysics is possible in The Critique of Pure Reason, of which the Prolegomena is a short summary.
HUME AND DIFFERENT TYPES OF SKEPTICISM
Hume's skepticism has been a kind of consequent skepticism which questions our habitual conclusions and judgments by calling into doubt the grounds based on which they are secured. Hume considers the testimony of the senses, which suggest the existence of a world external to us and a world that is independent of our senses. We are led by instinct to suppose that these senses report an accurate replica of the world around us. But to Hume, our belief in an external world is not rationally justified. Part of the reason for this is that our perceptions are changing as we move in the world. Still yet another justification Hume uses for his belief is that there are cases of madness or dreams where or senses deceive us. This form of skepticism can lead to complete inaction. IF WE DOUBT OUR SENSES, WE CAN NOT UNDERSTAND MATTER. This type of skepticism also leads to doubting causal reasoning.
Regarding Miracles
I personally believe that such definition of a miracle is not proper, but that it does not negate the existence of miracles. First of all, let us explain what a natural law is, for me, an occuracne that occurs in the natural world and is the basis of the formation of laws of nature. Human beings try to analyze nature and understand the laws of nature, but that does not mean that such an analysis will completely understand all the laws of nature. Meaning that we can not necessarily comprehend all the laws of nature. If we can not comprehend the laws of nature, then we cannot say that a miracle can not exist, because a miracle, that is an instance in which the laws of nature are upheld for some time. Since the word miracle contains the words natural laws within it, we can not understand what it means for a miracle to occur.
Furthermore, I disagree with the whole definition of word miracle that Hume has used. Why? Given that we can not understand all the natural laws as I just mentioned, can a miracle not just be an extension of the principles of nature that we do not yet understand?
Locke and Moral Reasoning
Besides all this, it is preposterous to claim that Locke was a moral relativist. Our current moral discourse is subject to the kind of perfect precision that should yield some possibility of demonstrable truth. Thus, moral truths are definable, because each of them signifies a mixed mode whose determinate content is made secure by its being created in the mind. Locke upheld the belief that careful attention to the complex ideas involved would result in some form of demonstrable form of human knowledge.
That Knowledge is not Innate
One of the ideas that Locke denies is the belief that knowledge is innate. The innatist declare that universal consent of a particular piece of information implies that they have an innate origin. To this, Locke responds that:
1. The denial of the supposed fact of universal consent
2. That if there were any genuine instances of universal consent, they would be better explained by universal possession of intellectual faculty or by being acquired through some universal experience, not innate knowledge.
If the innatist are true in their statement, then one could say that if logic, for example, were known to be innate, then children and those that are mentally challenged, both examples used by Locke, would be the ones that are best versed in logical principles. Yet is that true? The innatist response to this would be that the coming forth of innate knowledge is delayed until the person is able to employ the faculty of reasoning. Yet one can ask as to why this would be the case? If reason itself is needed to discover these principles, then the argument of the innatist is self-defeating, that that which is not known must be employed to make itself apparent. Locke uses the argument that reason and logic are coincidental features of human development.
Locke on Language
The importance of language for Locke is so significant that he has dedicated a whole part of his book on its nature, use and importance. According to him, language is the basic instrument of all human social interactions. For the employment of language, we have the first the physical organs, like the tongue and the mouth, that help us articulate a variety of sounds. We also have the ability of using these sounds that are produced by the respective organs to as sings of internal conception through which we communicate all our thoughts. Finally, we also employ words as general terms that can be applied to many particular things. Language is designed to serve all the practical needs of human life.
The problem that comes up after this discussion is how do we achieve our communicative goals. Locke suggests that all our words are representations of ideas. Locke also said that the absence of any universal language reveals that the connection between the word and the idea that it represents is not natural but rather conventional.
There is yet another problem here, and that is that since ideas differ from person to person and the association of words to ideas is purely voluntary, it follows from all this that the proper representation of a particular word depends on the particular idea in the mind of the speaker to which the hearer has no access.
Locke's Modes
Although Locke did believe that some simple ideas occur together naturally in our experiences, he also believed that most of the complex ideas that we possess are the result of the application of the higher powers of the brain. Complex ideas are just a combination of numerous simple ideas that result in the creation of a new whole. Repeated using of these powers creates the whole variety of ideas that humans beings can have.
Locke believes that complex ideas can be categorized into three:1. Modes
2. Substances
3. Relations
Of the three different types of ideas just mentioned, I will now just only talk about the first.
Modes
One simple mode is a complex idea whose components are parts, variations, and or combinations of one simple idea.
Mixed modes are complex ideas that are composed of members that incorporate numerous simple ideas. These are much more commonly manufactured by the mind as complex ideas before we first apply them to our world. There is only one thing that one needs to know for the formation of a mixed mode, and that is its convenience of its use for us. An example of mixed modes would be human activities that not only include sensation but the ideas of reflection. The example of stabbing a person will suffice to show what a mixed mode is. Lets say that for any two persons X and Y, X kills Y. The idea of killingsomeone might be such that a legislative body who is there to decide that this action is condemnable does not need to know when this first occurred in the annals of history. Lets suppose that the idea of stabbing someone is a mixed mode. In this case the only thing the legislative body needs to know is whether or not the stabbing was convenient. Although this seems gory and hard to believe, this would apply to the example mentioned. If the killing was not convenient for us, then the legislative body might decide that it is punishable, but if it is convenient, as in the example of an executioner killing a criminal, then the legislative body might decide that it is convenient for us to do so.
It should also be noted that the idea of what is a mixed mode will vary according to different cultures.
Saturday, April 26, 2008
Locke, Van Gogh is A Starry Night, and Origin in Experience
Locke, in Book 2, takes it upon himself to show where we get all our ides of knowledge. According to Locke, the mind is a blank slate, an empty piece of white paper, void of any ideas whatsoever. He says that, since the mind enters this world as an empty slate, all our ides regarding the world emanate from experience. This all knowledge is a result of our experiences. All that occurs to us comes to us directly through experience. If it is not as direct, it results from a past experience, or is in some way the result of some experience. For example, Locke might say that our concept of asthetics or beauty is not imprinted in the mind of a child as soon as the child comes out of the mothers womb, but rather it is in itself the very product of our experiences. We experience things that society considers to be beautiful and thus attribute beauty to anything possessing such characteristics and call that object beautiful.
Lets take the example further, just to prove the point. Take the example of painting. One of the most notable paintings today is Vincent Van Gogh's "A Starry Night." Now, people might say that the painting is beautiful. To Locke, this does not mean that the concept of beauty existsrt within all mankind, or for that matter the same concept of beauty exists in all human beings. He would say something like that this is a product of our experience. We experience that our society has certain concepts of beauty with regards to art and we impose these ideas on all paintings and by them judge the paintings to be beautiful or not. This is a product of society, and since societies can have differing notions of what it means to be a beautiful painting, some societies might consider this painting to be ugly.
Although I agree with Locke that there are ideas that are constructions of our experiences, I do not believe that this is always the case. There are certain ideas that exist throughout societies that I do not think can be doubted. Take for example the concept of the beautiful painting. It might be true that societies have differing concepts of beauty, and that says something about how society effects us, the fact that all societies have some concept of beauty would, to me, prove that there are at least some basic concepts that are common to all humans.
Independent Thinking in Locke's Ideology....
Although it is quite difficult to read, one of the first things one notices about Locke and his Essay is that he starts with an "Epistle to the Reader." In this he explains how the understanding arose for a need to systematically analyze human understanding in him. He also encourages ordinary readers to use their capacities of judgments instead of accepting what the intellectual society has already accepted. Locke explains that in everyday life, we all depend on some guidelines for our lives, and there are some forces that might be encouraging us t accept these guidelines blindly. According to Locke, this is wrong. Blind acceptance of borrowed principles leaves us in a situation whereby we accept some other absurd doctrines that are the effect of following such guidelines. The solution is to think independently.
What is interesting in this is that, if we accept this, we have to doubt everything that Locke said and come to our own conclusion about the matter. This is interesting not because it would go against what Locke wants, for it doesn't, but because Locke is being most unlike other "intellectuals". Others might want us to accept whatever they have said based on the fact that they are considered as "intellectuals", even though they are fallible human beings and that it is possible that they do not know all the implications of what they have said. Locke, although an odd case, is doing something that not only do I believe is right, but also something that is the main forte and reason for knowledge. I do not think that knowledge is not just the accumulation of information, but rather it is the processing of information that strengthens ones own thinking and analyzing capabilities and leads one to a conclusion based on the information gained. Based on this definition, what most "intellectuals do" is against the very principle of knowledge, and it is this same principle that Locke is trying to defend.
Possible Reasons for writing Part six of Discourse
By noting this, possibly not wanting to go through the same fate, both for himself and his works. I think that this was a wise move on the part of Descartes, for he avoided the fate that befell Galileo and secured the success of his works.
Descartes and the Demon
DESCARTES AND THE DEMON
Descartes declares in part one of his Meditations Descartes declares that we cannot believe in our senses. One of the reasons that he says we can not believe in our senses is that we do not know that we are being deceived or not. He says that there is a possibility that we are being deceived by a demon into to believing the world that we are seeing. This is an interesting statement that he has made, but I do not think that something so out of this world is necessary to call all our sense into doubt. All we need to realize is that our knowledge is limited.
Here someone might say "How do we know that our knowledge is limited?" The answer to this is that if we knew everything, there would not be any need for experiments and methods of analysis. But they are there. One could say it is the realization of our ignorance that has lead to the advancement of the many fields of knowledge, for if we did not realize our ignorance and believed that we already knew all, we would not even think of making the endevour towards advancement of knowledge.
Taking this into consideration, lets analyze one proposition that we hold dear: That our universe (including everything in it, like galaxies, stars, space, all matter, all antimatter, etc.) is the all there is. We like to think that. This is supported by the observations we make, which are just an extrapolation of our senses. Yet , if we take into consideration that we are do not possess knowledge of all, we can realize that our sense how our universe is all that can be mistaken. It is possible that it is wrong, and that in reality our galaxy is one single atom of one single object that that itself exists in a universe quite different from ours.
Thursday, April 24, 2008
kant scepticism
kant appearance
Kant soul
Kant Substantial self
Kant on Humean doubt
kant's analytic/synthetic distinction
Tuesday, April 22, 2008
Hume on Mathemataics and Morality
David Hume claims that there is some difference between subjects like mathematics and morality, that mathematics discusses things that are concrete and their concepts are concrete. But morality is not like this. it is more relative. One could, as I will now, pose the question as to weather there is a difference in the essence of mathematics and like subjects and morality and other such subjects like it.
Why should there be such a question? The answer is simple. To answer this question lets ask the following:
1. What are the aforementioned subjects trying to analyze? If one wants to answer this, one could say that one is trying to analyze the physical world while the other is trying to analyze some ethical principles that society and the individual should use in their existence. It looks like there is a difference here, but this difference is only a surface level difference. If one looks at both the answer, one can conclude that both these subjects are analyzing one thing: the external world. Mathematics and morality are trying to both look at the world and make sense of it.
2. What is mathematics and what is morality? Do they exist in and of them self? It is preposterous to say that any subject should exist by itself in the world without there being an intellect to analyze it. The content of that subject matter, the "stuff" it studies might exist, but the subject itself is a product of the pondering of intellectual beings and thus could not exist with out them. There is no difference in this with regards to what subject it is. One could pose as an objection the statement that mathematics studies something concrete while morality studies that which is metaphysical. But this statement is flawed. Why? Lets see. Mathematics does not study physical objects, it studies numbers, or the representation of those objects. It does not matter that i say that two fish plus five fish equals seven fish or that i say that two balls plus five balls equals seven balls, the relation between these two examples, that of the addition of their quantities, is essentially the same. To take this point further, current mathematics does not just analyze numbers, but rather the philosophy of mathematics analyzes groupings of objects known as sets, a collection of objects symbolized as two brackets with their members in them. Yet again analysis does not focus on the physical objects but rather on something that makes them a part of a set. Thus mathematics does not study the physical, but rather it studies the metaphysical numerical relations between such objects.
Morality itself studies the metaphysical relations between objects and a society.
3. Doesn't morality essentially help man while mathematics is more or less ambivalent towards him? The answer here again is no. While the attempt to analyze morality itself can surely help man, if it used in a specific manner which meets that end, there is nothing in studying the subject of morality that specifically implies that studying it will help man. It can, if used in a certain manner. Mathematics is like this as well. Studying the subject of Mathematics does not imply that knowledge obtained by it will help man, but nor does it not imply that it wont help man if used in a specific context. Morality can help man if used a certain way. Mathematics can do the same if used in a certain manner. Which manner? Through scientific analysis that aims to help man. Mathematics is the language of science, and if science is used in a manner that helps man, then mathematics is really helping him as well.
SO, IS THERE A DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE SUBJECTS JUST MENTIONED? YES, BUT ONLY IN SPECIFICS, NOT IN GENERALITIES OR IN ESSENCE. THE SUBJECT OF MATHEMATICS TRY TO ANALYZE SOME PARTS OF WHAT WE PERCEIVE WHILE MORALITY DOES THE SAME WITH OTHER PARTS.
Billard Balls, God , the Universe, and Miracles
I don't necessarily agree with this statement. When Hume makes this conclusion he is implying that the reason that he uses for such a conclusion is itself the only possibility. Herein lies his problem. He assumes that whenever there is an event and God is used as an answer to the question "What was the cause of this event?" that the laws of nature are suspended so that God can come in to the picture and thus He/She/It can intervene and become the cause. This would also mean that all other human inquiries regarding the cause for an event come to a halt (Who caused event x? Answer:God). Who is to say that God does not work through the laws governing the universe. With the aforementioned statement, natural laws aren't stopped and human beings can look into the natural cause for such natural events.
Some might pose the question "What of miracles?" This person might ask aren't they the work of God, and aren't they the cessation of natural events. The answer to this is that first one must establish that miracles are the cessation of natural events and that they themselves aren't the extension of the natural will o God, if such a deity exists, in the form of something that we would call a miracle.
Tuesday, April 15, 2008
Understanding
Hume on the human being
Monday, April 7, 2008
Hume soul
I think Hume is describing the parts of the mind and body as the whole thing. I think Descartes argues that the sum of the parts creates the whole mind, and the essence of the mind is thought because it takes the perceptions from the parts and creates other ideas which are real. But Hume, using the parts instead of the whole, sees the perceptions as real instead of the ideas or the reason the senses perceived what they did.
Hume Sceptical Part III
Hume Sceptical Part II
Hume Sceptical Philosophy
Hume Reason of Animals
Friday, April 4, 2008
Hume Of the Association of Ideas
Hume Origin of Ideas
Friday, March 14, 2008
Locke Soul
Locke Origin of Ideas
Locke Innate ideas
Locke Identity
Thursday, March 6, 2008
locke xxvi human views of existence
Locke XIX mind/body and will
he concludes by saying thinking is the action of the soul and not the essence. if thinking has so many modes and the mode of attention has different degrees, then it is probable that the soul is acting and thinking is not its essence. because the essence of any agent is not capable of variation. i think he is explaining that even though the mind is constantly working and thinking there still exists a will that choose how the mind studies certain ideas. and so this will cannot be a prisoner of its own function if its function is to reason.
Descartes function of the soul
descartes discourse 5 in regards to machines
Tuesday, February 5, 2008
Second Meditation
Safi's Part of Discourse
Part Six
Monday, February 4, 2008
Discourse 5
Finally, because their is a God, then their is reason to fear and hope after the present life, and when a person accepts the soul's independence of the body there is no reason to believe the soul dies with it and no reason to believe the soul dies at all.
Discourse 4
He states that ideas do not exist within him, but come from a superior begin; God. And it is as certain as any geometric proof that God exists. Therefore, the ideas that enter him must be true, and we are not wholly perfect so that we can understand that everthing true comes from a perfect being.
Finally, reason does not insist that what we see is true, but becasue God is perfect and truthful all our ideas must have a foundation of truth.